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Exam Code: 190-955
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM WebSphere Portal 6.1 Deployment and Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Your WebSphere Portal environment is supposed to access a remote LDAP directory that is supported
by another group in your organization. However, they will not allow changes to be made to their LDAP
directory structure. Portal has requirements that cannot be met by their structure. Which of the following is
the best possible solution?
A.Do not utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a local Cloudscape directory
B.Utilize the remote LDAP directory and disable all features that require customization
C.Utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a look-aside database for additional profile information
D.Copy the remote LDAP directory into a local LDAP source and make the necessary customization
needed to utilize the local source
Answer: C

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NO.2 In order to implement a highly available END-TO-END security solution for a production portal
environment, which of the following sets of components would be most useful?
A.Netegrity SiteMinder, Credentials vault, Dynamic Cache, Deployment Manager hot standby
B.Tivoli Access Manager, Load Balancing Edge component, Portal Cluster, LDAP server cluster
C.Tivoli Access Manager, Portal Cluster, Credential vault, Network-Attached Storage devices
D.Tivoli Access Manager, Netegrity SiteMinder, WebSphere Information Integrator, LDAP server cluster
Answer: B

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NO.3 As the Portal administrator, you are exporting and transferring a document library from a staging
system to a production system. You have successfully created an empty shared directory to hold the
exported document library. Both the staging and production servers have write access to the shared
directory. When you move the document library from the staging system to the production system, which
of the following occurs to private drafts?
A.They are converted to submitted drafts
B.They are transferred without modifications
C.They will all be converted to the same UUID
D.They are appended a new document version number
Answer: B

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NO.4 When an administrator uses an xml export from a complete page and changes the create-oids to "true",
which of the following occurs when the xml file is imported again?
A.All portlets are deleted from the page and the layout is created again
B.XMLaccess commands will issue an an error because it cannot find the page
C.All portlets are deleted from the page and the layout is created again unless the administrator has also
set preserve-old-layout="true"
D.All portlets that are referenced in the xml file and are already on the page, remain untouched, additional
portlets are put on the page in their place from the portlet catalog
Answer: C

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NO.5 A user requires privileged user permission in order to interact with a portlet in which way?
A.In order to see the portlet on a page
B.In order to configure the portlet
C.In order to edit the portlet settings
D.In order to move the portlet to a different column on the page
Answer: C

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NO.6 Members of a WebSphere Portal cluster exist on multiple physical machines to distribute the workload
of a single logical WebSphere Portal image. What is this called?
A.Vertical scaling
B.Horizontal scaling
C.Multi-machine design
D.HTTP server separation
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements correctly describes how WebSphere Portal's functionality is
implemented on the WebSphere Application Server?
A.WebSphere Portal is deployed as a stand-alone Java application using WebSphere Application Server
client libraries.
B.WebSphere Portal is deployed as an Enterprise Application on the WebSphere Application Server
C.WebSphere Portal is a stand-alone web server framework and is not related to WebSphere Application
Server
D.WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's Portlet Container
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following describes a scenario that is a good fit for WebSphere Portal??
A.Organization needs a desktop application with collaboration capabilities
B.Organization needs a website that consists largely of static content
C.Organization needs a website to aggregate content, and various applications
D.Organization needs a mobile application that integrates with its order entry system
Answer: C

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NO.9 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company. If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A.Dynamic Cache and a stand-alone Portal server with disaster recovery
B.An Authentication and Authorization solution, A load balancing solution, a Portal cluster with HTTP
servers handling static content, and clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C.A Portal Cluster, Stepup Authentication, Network-Attached Storage devices
D.An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a Portal cluster
Answer: B

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NO.10 Jim is designing a set of Portal environments for his companys public website which has a mixture of
both dynamic web content as well as applications. Users want to be able to create content and develop
applications without interrupting service on the site. Which of the following describes the correct
architecture for his needs?
A.A single environment, production, in which all work is performed
B.Two environments, a production environment and a disaster recovery environment
C.Three environments, a development environment for creating applications, a staging environment for
assembling content, and a production environment
D.A environment for each user so that their changes do not affect any other user
Answer: C

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NO.11 Utilizing the Manage Applications portlet, you have made a change to a portlet application in the virtual
portal for Europe on your Portal server. That change is now being seen by all other virtual portals on the
server. Which of the following best represents the steps necessary to restrict only Europe to seeing these
changes?
A.Create an additional portal scope and move the Europe users to this new resource
B.Utilize PAC to remove all users access, outside of Europe users, for the portlet application
C.Create a copy of the portlet application, assign it to Europe and apply the changes as needed
D.Create an additional virtual portal for just this portlet application and copy the Europe user access
Answer: C

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NO.12 In case of errors occur during the WebSphere Portal installation, which of the following log files will
contain the trace information for diagnosing the installation issues?
A.installmessages.txt
B.installtraces.txt
C.wpsinstall.log
D.wpinstalllog.txt
Answer: D

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NO.13 Composite applications can be defined by which of the following?
A.A group of applications that share a common theme
B.A list of applications available to the personalization server
C.A cluster of WebSphere Portal servers that share a common database
D.A compiled set of components that address a particular business need
Answer: D

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NO.14 The Portal Scripting interface provides the following advantage over the XML Access Interface ?
A.Portal scripting uses the easy to learn Xquery language
B.You can set up a super administrator to run all scrips
C.XMLAccess only work in Interactive mode
D.It allows easy separation of distributed portal administration
Answer: D

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NO.15 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate, certain users are
not. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct user id and password.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A.The users should log in with an email address instead of a user id.
B.The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where Portal looks for accounts.
C.The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D.The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Matt is creating a Portal solution for a client who mentions that they would like to expose information
from their mainframe system to Web users. What should Matt do?
A.Ignore the question because WebSphere Portal does not support mainframe systems
B.Agree with the requirement because WebSphere Portal supports mainframe systems such as System Z
C.Proceed cautiously because mainframe integration could affect the performance of other portal
applications
D.Explain that portal is an interface service in his larger Service Oriented Architecture design and should
be used to expose data from backend systems such as the mainframe
Answer: D

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NO.17 Charlie has setup syndication on a new library between the Authoring server and the portal, Cindy in
Sales cannot see the content from the new library. What does Charlie need to do?
A.Check the box include security settings on syndicator
B.Setup Sales group access permissions on Library before syndication
C.Check the box include security settings for syndication on the Library on the Authoring server
D.Setup up access permissions on the new library on the portal for the Sales Group
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are the steps required to delete a portlet that is common across clusters?
A.Delete the portlet using xmlaccess and run the /ConfigEngine/ConfigEngine.[bat|sh]
update-configuration task
B.Uninstall the EAR file using the WebSphere Administration console
C.Delete the portlet using the WebSphere Portal Administration page
D.Delete the portlet using xmlaccess then uninstall the EAR file
Answer: D

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NO.19 Juan is attempting to configure connectivity with Sametime from the Portal. In the process of
troubleshooting why he is unable to make a connection, he learns from the Sametime administrator that
Sametime is using port 8080, not port 80 as Juan initially thought. In which WebSphere Portal
configuration file does Juan need to make this port number correction?
A.stlinks.properties
B.ConfigService.properties
C.Sametime.ini
D.CSEnvironment.properties
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following statements is true with regards to LTPA?
A.LTPA allows single sign-on across servers when browser cookies are disabled.
B.LTPA can only allow WebSphere servers to communicate credentials to other properly-configured
WebSphere servers.
C.LTPA can only allow WebSphere servers to communicate credentials to properly-configured Lotus
Domino servers.
D.LTPA can allow WebSphere servers to communicate credentials to both properly configured
WebSphere and Lotus Domino servers.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 190-520
Exam Name: Lotus (Maintaining Domino R5 Servers and Users)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Will selected "Pull only" in the "Router type" field on the connection document where
Domino32 server initiates a connection to Domino10 server.
When the connection is made, what routing activity will take place?
A. Domino32 will pull mail from Domino10.
B. Domino32 will push mail to Domino10.
C. Domino32 will tell Domino10 to pull mail from Domino32.
D. Domino32 will tell Domino10 to push mail to Domino32.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Pia was listed as Editor in the ACL of EMPLOYEE.NSF. She created new documents and
existing documents, but now Pia can't edit any documents but her own.
What has changed?
A. An Authors field was added to the documents.
B. Her ACL level was changed to Author.
C. A Readers field was added to the documents.
D. The $Revisions field wad deleted from the documents.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Vladimirhas Designer access in the Sales Discussion database. He has made several
changes and is ready to make them available to all replicas of the database. After a full
replication cycle he noticed that none of the changes have appeared.
What could cause this problem?
A. He needed manager access to make changes to replicas.
B. The design of the database is hidden.
C. Design changes are only made at 1 AM by the server Design task.
D. The originating server access was set too low on the other servers.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Johannes is Manager of the Problem Tracking database and is troubleshooting an agent.
The agent is written in LotusScript. He developed the database on Server B and replicated
it to Server A.
Why would the agent run fine on server A but not on Server B?
A. Server B is not in the same Notes Named Network.
B. Server B is a test server only.
C. Server B does not allow him to run agents.
D. Server B is a Hub server.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Rodger is responsible for the Mail server at Certkiller . Routing is taking an unusually long
time and Rodger suspects that high traffic is slowing the process.
How can he increase the number of messages routing at one time?
A. Limit the number of users to connect concurrently.
B. Implement multiple MAIL.BOX databases to expedite mail routing on his server.
C. Limit the number of mail messages a user can send at one time.
D. Delete user mail files from his server to keep traffic down.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Using a Web client, Eva cannot access the Catalog database. Domino indicates that she is
not authorized to access the database.
Which one of the following caused this error?
A. Default ACL access is set to Reader.
Anonymous is not listed in the ACL.
B. Default ACL access is set to Reader.
Anonymous ACL access is set to No Access.
C. Default ACL access is set to No Access.
Anonymous ACL access is set to Reader.
D. Default ACL access is set to No Access.
Anonymous ACL access is set to Author.
Answer: B

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NO.7 At G¨¹ntersTech, the DomAdmin group is listed as Manager of all dat bases. All other
employees have Author access. A user changed another person's document because he had been
incorrectly given Editor access.
How can Jorgen, one of the administrators, see who changed the ACL?
A. Look in the Notes Log under the Database folder.
B. Check the ACL log on the server.
C. Look at the ACL log history in the ACL.
D. Changes are not logged for future review.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Because of intermittent network problems, Edna wants administrators to be able to track
mail messages on all the servers in the domain. The administrators are listed in the
ADMIN group.
Which one of the following does Edna need to do to accomplish this?
A. Add the ADMIN group to the "Allowed to track message" field in each server's Configuration
document.
B. Add the ADMIN group only to the "Allowed to track message" field in the Administration
server's Configuration document by default.
C. Nothing. The ADMIN group is added to the "Allowed to track message" field in the
Administration Server's Configuration document by default.
D. Nothing. The ADMIN group is allowed to track message when the "Allowed to track
message" field in each server's Configuration document is left blank.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Amanda is responsible for all web access to Certkiller . Several users have reported that
they are getting the "Database browsing not allowed" error when trying to access
databases on one particular server.
What does Amanda need to do to fix this problem?
A. Go to all databases involved and deselect the "hide from web users" check box in database
properties.
B. Restart the server because databases haven't been refreshed recently.
C. Give the users manager access to the databases.
D. Make certain the option "Allow HTTP clients to browse databases" is enabled in the server
document for that server.
Answer: D

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NO.10 In order for Christine to access the server console from a Unix command line, which command
must Christine use?
A. Console
B. Cconsole
C. Rconsole
D. AdminConsole
Answer: B

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NO.11 When displaying Topology Mapping for servers, there are lines that indicate types of
connections.
Which is not a valid connection type?
A. In-Use connection
B. Mail connection
C. Replication Connection
D. Mail and Replication Connection
Answer: A

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NO.12 Where can Otto check to make sure mail is routing when the number in the "Route at once if
field" of the connection document is reached?
A. Count messages in MAIL.BOX.
B. Count messages in MAIL.NSF.
C. Check TRESHOLD.LOG.
D. Check MAILLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.13 Bubba has several users with maul files over 2 GB. He has been requested to reduce the
size of mail files in the interest of saving disk space. By default, the router will continue to
deliver mail to a user even though his mail file is over its size quota.
How can Bubba prevent this?
A. Set "Obey database quotas during message delivery" to Enabled in a Configuration document.
B. From the Server console enter, "Tell Router Obey Quota".
C. In the database Quota setting, select "Router-Obey database Quota".
Answer: A

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NO.14 To improve performance, Domino stores in memory information about HTTP commands,
databases, users and page formulas.
What is this feature called?
A. HTTP cache
B. Web cache
C. Domino Analyzer
D. Command cache
Answer: D

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NO.15 Magnus has deleted a resource reservation document and created a new one with updated
information to replace it.
What needs to take place to make the new resource available?
A. Replicate the Domino Directory.
B. Request the resource to be used when scheduling a meeting.
C. Administration Process updates the resource document in the Directory.
D. The resource is available when the resource document is saved.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Documentation suggests that Saruman check for a missing or incorrect Domain setting in
the NOTES.INI file. At server startup, the Router reads this setting and sends the message
"Mail Router started for the domain x" to the console and to the log file.
What command can Saruman type at the console to verify the NOTES.INI domain setting?
A. Show Configuration Domain
B. Set Configuration Domain
C. Test Configuration Domain
D. Verify Configuration Domain
Answer: A

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NO.17 Eric created a shared agent to run hourly on newly created documents. He gave the server
Manager access to the database. However, the agent is still running.
Which one of the following describes how to fix the problem?
A. Run the agent using a User ID and not a Server ID.
B. List the server in the Server Tasks section of the Server document.
C. List the server in the Agent Manager section of the Server document.
D. List the server in the Agent Restriction section of the Server document.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Jennifer sees the "Unable to copy database" message in the Miscellaneous Events view if the log
indicating that a database is corrupted.
She is running transaction logging for the database.
What should she do?
A. Run the Fixup task with the -J option.
B. Run Updall
C. Reboot the server machine.
D. Make a new replica of the corrupted database with a different name, erase the old copy and
give the new copy it's name.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Ove has added an alternate name for Marcus.
Which method was NOT a procedure that Marcus could have used to add an alternate name?
A. Recertify User ID.
B. Register a new user.
C. Run the "Alternate name" agent.
D. Edit the person document, add the alternate name, then recertify the User ID.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Max uses the console command "tell http restart".
Which command sequence is this equivalent to?
A. "Load http", then "tell http quit"
B. "Tell http quit", then "load http"
C. "Tell http quit", then "http"
D. "Quit", then "tell http load"
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 190-952
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Application Development Fundament)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Brett has written an action button that extends the due date of a video. When the due date has been
recomputed, he would like a pop-up box to display that shows the new due date. What @Function will
give him this functionality?
A.@Prompt
B.@Dialog
C.@Picklist
D.@Messagebox
Answer: A

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NO.2 Burt has been asked to create a unique key to identify each rental transaction in the Video Rental
database. What @Function can he use to create this key?
A.@Key
B.@Unique
C.@UniqueKey
D.@RandomKey
Answer: B

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NO.3 Jorge has built a Ticket Tracking application that is accessed using a Web browser. When users
bookmark a document in their browser, the bookmark title should show the date and status of the ticket.
How would Jorge accomplish this task?
A.Use a window title formula of @Text(TicketDate) + " - " + TicketStatus
B.Use a bookmark title formula of @Text(TicketDate) + " - " + TicketStatus
C.Create a $WindowTitle field with a formula of @Text(TicketDate) + " - " + TicketStatus
D.Create a $BrowserTitle field with a formula of @Text(TicketDate) + " - " + TicketStatus
Answer: A

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NO.4 Anna wants to add a field to her form that allows one or more values to be selected from a scrolling
fixed size field. What type of field should she use?
A.Listbox
B.Keyword
C.Combobox
D.Dialog List
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which one of the following can be printed from the Domino Designer IDE?
A.Current selection
B.Alternative language
C.Only LotusScript language
D.Other objects Alternative language
Answer: A

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NO.6 Robert does not want Authors in the Video database's ACL to be able to edit certain fields in
documents that they created. Which one of the following can he do to accomplish this task?
A.Set field security options to Must have at least Editor access to use.
B.Use a Readers field on the form to prevent access to existing documents.
C.Use an Authors field on the form to prevent access to existing documents.
D.Create a standard section on the form and put the restricted fields in the section.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Jonathan has built a view in the sales.nsf application. Jonathan wants the profit column in the view to
display in currency. Which one of the following should he do?
A.Write the column formula using the @function @Currency.
B.Select currency on the Numbers tab in the Field Properties of the cost field.
C.Select Number as the style on the Advanced tab of the Column Properties window, and Custom as the
Display Format.
D.Open the Column Properties window and click the Advanced tab. Select Number as the style, and
select Currency as the Number Format.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When Nora creates a new document in the Suggestion application, a number of the fields have text
already displayed. But when she tabs to or clicks the field, the text disappears. What design feature has
been used to create this behavior?
A.Field Hint in the Field Properties window
B.Default Value in the Form Properties window
C.Help Description in the Field Properties window
D.Field Assistance in the Field Properties window
Answer: A

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NO.9 Roberto has been asked to modify the Membership view in the Video Rental application. A green check
mark should display in the Approved view column for each document where membership has been
approved.
He set the view column property to Display values as icons, and now he needs to write a column formula.
What is the column formula he needs to use?
A.@If(Approved = "Yes"; 82; 0)
B.@If(Approved = "Yes"; @OpenImageResource("checkmark.gif"); "")
C.@If(Approved = "Yes"; @Icon(82); @Icon(0))
D.@If(Approved = "Yes"; @Column(82); @Column(0))
Answer: A

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NO.10 When Eduardo tried to save a document, he got the following error message:
Incorrect data type for operator or @Function: Text Expected.
Which one of the following did he most likely do to cause this error to happen?
A.He entered text in a number field.
B.He neglected to place a formula in a validation event.
C.He neglected to place a formula in a translation event.
D.He combined a text field and a time field in a formula.
Answer: D

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NO.11 When Tony looks at his video due date in the Video Rental database main view, he sees a due date
time of 9 a.m. Bob is in a different time zone, and sees Tony's due date as 11 a.m. What setting causes
the times to be different for Bob and Tony?
A.The Column Properties window has Display Time set to Always show time zone.
B.The View Properties window has Display Time set to Adjust time to local zone.
C.The Column Properties window has Display Time set to Adjust time to local zone.
D.The View Properties window has Display Time set to Show only if zone not local.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Jamie needs to add a RestrictAccess field on a form in the Purchasing application. Only users with the
[Admin] role should be able to see this field. How should she write the hide/when formula to hide this
field?
A.@Show("[Admin]";@UserRoles)
B.@Elements("[Admin]";@UserRoles)
C.@IsContained("[Admin]";@UserRoles)
D.@IsNotMember("[Admin]";@UserRoles)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Mark can see every recipe document in the Kitchen Planning application. He can also edit recipes that
include his name in the Owner field. What level of ACL access does he have?
A.Owner
B.Author
C.Editor
D.Manager
Answer: B

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NO.14 Yuki wants to add a field to her form that allows multiple values to be selected or cleared by clicking
next to the item. What type of field should she use?
A.Text
B.Checkbox
C.Combobox
D.Radio Button
Answer: B

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NO.15 Dora has a view with a column that shows the date and time at which the document was created. She
would like to show just the date and hide the time portion. How can she accomplish this task?
A.In the View Properties window, set the view style to Date/Time and format the date to be mm/dd/yyyy.
B.In the View Properties window, set the view style to Date/Time, and clear the Display Time option.
C.In the Column Properties window, set the column style to Date/Time and format the date to be
mm/dd/yyyy.
D.In the Column Properties window, set the column style to Date/Time, and clear the Display Time option.
Answer: D

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NO.16 The Open Discussions view of the Brainstorming application should display main documents. The view
should also display all comments that have been submitted in response to the original postings or to other
comments. Gabriela has discovered that all main documents are displaying correctly in this view, but
neither the response documents nor the response to response documents are displaying. What could be
the problem?
A.On the Options tab of the View properties, the Show main documents only option is selected.
B.On the Info tab of the View properties, the Style option is currently set to Standard Outline.
C.On the Info tab of the View properties, the Style option is not currently set to Standard Outline.
D.On the Options tab of the View properties, the Show response documents in a hierarchy option is not
selected.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Oscar has a database that is designed to be used by the Notes client and a Web browser. He's adding
a new view that should only be accessible by people using the Notes client. How can he accomplish this
task?
A.Set the "$HideFrom" design element field to a value of Web.
B.Select Hide design element from Web browsers in the Column Properties window.
C.Select Hide design element from Web browsers in the Design Document properties for the view.
D.Clear Web browsers from the Who can use this view?" ption in the View Properties window.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Rita has built an agent that changes documents with an Approved status to a status of Ready To Pay.
When creating a scheduled agent, what are her options for the schedule frequency?
A.Hourly, Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Annually
B.Once, Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Annually, Never
C.On Startup, On Shutdown, Daily, Weekly, Monthly
D.More than once a day, Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Never
Answer: D

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NO.19 Tony wants to create a duplicate of the Video application. He wants to keep a version of the data on the
same server as the production application but does not want any new documents or document
modifications to be replicated into his new database after he creates it. Which one of the following should
Tony do to create his archive?
A.Create a new copy of the database.
B.Create a replica copy of the database.
C.Use Microsoft Windows Explorer to create a copy of the database file.
D.Create a replica copy of the database and disable replication on the database properties.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Victor has a field that allows the user to enter the list price of a video. What type of field makes sure that
the value of that field is numeric?
A.Number
B.Dollar
C.Currency
D.Text field with @TextToCurrency Input Validation formula
Answer: A

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NO.1 In the command, save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 abcd.cfg merge, which function does the merge
parameter specify?
A.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the configuration in RAM.
B.The config file from the TFTP server will replace the startup configuration file in internal flash.
C.The merge parameter is not valid for TFTP files, it is only valid for configuration files stored in internal
flash.
D.The config file from the TFTP server will be combined with the configuration file in RAM and the
combined result will be saved in internal flash.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement accurately describes the "config rollback" feature?
A.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously saved
configuration file from flash.
B.The "config rollback" feature is enabled by default, it allows the administrator to re-apply a previously
saved configuration file from flash.
C.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to re-apply a locked
configuration file from a separate area in flash.
D.Once the "config rollback" feature is enabled, it allows the administrator to revert to the prior ScreenOS
image or configuration file in the event an upgrade operation aborts.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than the first
in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A.The second packet causes an ARP query.
B.The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C.The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D.The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When performing an image upgrade using the CLI, which three locations would be a source for this
image? (Choose three.)
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PC local disk
E.Compact Flash Card
Answer: BCE

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NO.5 You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says,
"Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway"
What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Answer: ADE

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NO.6 What will change the root admin password?
A.set admin password
B.set root-admin password
C.set admin password
D.set admin user password
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which type of NAT is performed when you implement interface-based NAT?
A.source IP address translation
B.destination IP address translation
C.source IP and port address translation
D.destination IP and port address translation
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which command is used when configuring web management on the VLAN1 interface for a client
connected to an e3 interface in the DMZ zone?
A.set int eth3 manage web
B.set zone v1-dmz manage web
C.set int dmz zone manage web
D.set int VLAN1 zone dmz manage web
Answer: B

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NO.9 By default, where are changes stored when a save command is issued from the CLI during a
management session?
A.NVRAM
B.internal flash
C.PCMCIA card
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?
A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone.
What else should be completed to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management
PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are configuring an interface in the untrust zone with an IP address, telnet enabled, and WebUI
management.
Which sequence of steps must be performed to make the interface operational at the end of the
configuration sequence?
A.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
B.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, accept default management services.
C.Assign the interface to a virtual router, define the IP address, enable Web and telnet services.
D.Assign the interface to a zone, define the IP address, define a manage IP address, accept default
management services.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the "Manage-IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which device is allowed to manage the ScreenOS device.
C.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
D.It defines a list of device addresses that can manage the ScreenOS device without being authenticated
prior to session establishment.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When changes are made to the running config during a WebUI management session, to what external
hardware component can the changes be saved?
A.FTP server
B.TFTP server
C.PC local disk
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which process describes how an addressed physical interface is moved into a Layer 2 zone?
A.Place the required interface into the VLAN zone.
B.Place the required interface into L2 zones such as V1-Trust, V1-Untrust
C.Remove the interface from the L3 zone such as Trust and place it into a L2 zone such as V1-Trust
D.Remove the address from the interface, remove the interface from the L3 zone, and then place
interface in the L2 zone.
Answer: D

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NO.18 A ScreenOS firewall is running in transparent mode. The firewall receives a packet which has no entry
in its forwarding table.
What will the firewall do?
A.Flood out all ports.
B.Check its route table for interzone destination.
C.Perform a policy lookup to determine the interfaces to which the source address is permitted, and flood
the packet out of those interfaces.
D.Perform a policy lookup to determine the zones to which the source address is permitted, and flood the
packet out the interfaces bound to those zones.
Answer: D

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NO.19 When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which
hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded?
A.TFTP server
B.PC local disk
C.internal flash
D.Compact Flash Card
Answer: B

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NO.20 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.21 A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing
interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the
client to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.22 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A.Check its route table.
B.Check its session table.
C.Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D.Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.23 An operational firewall needs a configuration loaded and executed while it is passing user data.
Which CLI command will perform this process without interrupting traffic?
A.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
B.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to ram
C.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg merge
D.save config from tftp 1.1.7.250 15June06.cfg to flash
Answer: C

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NO.24 When configuring a firewall in a critical environment where a local backup configuration is quickly
needed, what should be completed on a periodic basis?
A.Execute exec config rollback.
B.Execute save config to last-known-good.
C.Execute save regularly or create a script that does this.
D.Execute save software from flash to pcmcia .
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which command would you run to check IPSec Phase 1 active status?
A.get sa
B.get event 427
C.get sa active
D.get ike cookie
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address.
B.Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used.
C.It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes.
D.You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an
Ethernet port.
Answer: AC

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NO.27 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated the output shown? (Choose
two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer: BC

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NO.29 Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and
all-privilege administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which ScreenOS WebUI button reorders policies?
A.Shift
B.Move
C.Reorder
D.Transfer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-303
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.m(jncis-m))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the Draft-Kompella control plane based on?
A. IGP
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. MPLS
Answer: C

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NO.2 When comparing CPE and provider-provisioned VPNs (PPVPN), which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. CPE VPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, PPVPN does not.
B. PPVPN's require dedicated VPN aware hardware at customer site, CPE VPN's does not.
C. CPE VPN's scale better than PPVPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
D. PPVPN's scale better than CPE VPN's as they do not require a per site configuration on the CPE.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 In JUNOS software, which type of VPN supports IPX and Appletalk?
A. Martini based VPN's
B. 2547bis based VPN's
C. Sham link based VPN's
D. Virtual Router based VPN's
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which JUNOS software operational-mode command displays the status of a Draft-Martini VPN?
A. show ldp neighbor
B. show martini connections
C. show l2circuit connections
D. show l2vpn connections
Answer: C

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NO.5 In what PIM topology would you use MSDP within a single domain?
A. Auto-RP
B. Anycast RP
C. Bootstrap router
D. PIM sparse mode
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the administrative scoping address range associated with global scope?
A. 224.0.0.0/24
B. 239.128.0.0/10
C. 239.192.0.0/14
D. 224.0.1.0?38.255.255.255
Answer: D

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NO.7 In JUNOS software, what is required to redistribute RIP routes into OSPF?
A. Apply an export policy in RIP.
B. Apply an import policy in RIP.
C. Apply an export policy in OSPF.
D. Apply an import policy in OSPF.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two mechanisms control route distribution between PE routers in a 2547bis VPN? (Choose
two.)
A. Site ID
B. Policies
C. Circuit ID
D. Extended communities
Answer: BD

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NO.9 In JUNOS software, which three are valid encapsulation types for CCC? (Choose three.)
A. hdlc-ccc
B. atm-cell-ccc
C. cisco-hdlc-ccc
D. ethernet-vlan-ccc
E. ethernet-snap-ccc
Answer: BCD

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NO.10 Which multicast mode does Auto-RP require?
A. Link-mode
B. Dense mode
C. Sparse mode D. Sparse-dense mode
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two steps are required for a Kompella Layer 2 VPN? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a site ID for each CE
B. Configure a VPN label for each VPN
C. Configure a MP-BGP session to each PE
D. Configure an Extended LDP Session to each PE
Answer: AC

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NO.12 What prevents routing loops when MSDP is configured across multiple domains?
A. PIM-SM
B. Scoping
C. Auto-RP
D. MBGP
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two multicast groups support Auto-RP mapping and discovery? (Choose two.)
A. 224.0.0.39
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.40
D. 224.0.1.40
Answer: BD

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NO.14 An OSPF non-backbone area allows external routes to be flooded within the area. These external
routes are
propagated into other areas. However, external routes from other areas are not allowed to enter this area.
Which type of
OSPF area does this describe?
A. stub area
B. transit area
C. border area
D. not-so-stubby area
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which represents a correct PE-PE BGP configuration for an L3 VPN?
A. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
B. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
any;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1; }
C. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
unicast;
}
family inet-vpn {
unicast;
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
D. [edit]
lab@Amsterdam# show protocols bgp
group int {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.24.1;
family inet {
13-vpn;
}
neighbor 192.168.16.1;
}
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which three RP election mechanisms are available in a PIM-SM domain? (Choose three.)
A. Static
B. Auto-RP
C. Dynamic-RP
D. Bootstrap router
Answer: ABD

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NO.17 PE1 has connections to VPN sites that are served by three remote PE routers. How many LSP's must
be established to support 2547bis?
A. an LSP for each local CE device
B. an LSP for each remote PE device
C. an LSP for each remote CE device
D. an LSP for each CE facing interface
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are three examples of a provider-provisioned VPN supported by JUNOS software? (Choose
three.)
A. L2F
B. PPTP
C. Circuit cross-connect
D. Draft-Martini-based VPNs
E. Draft-Kompella-based VPNs
Answer: CDE

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NO.19 What are two commands that can be used to configure MBGP for multicast? (choose two)
A. Under the BGP group, configure family inet any
B. Use the set protocol MBGP command to enable MBGP
C. Under the BGP group, configure family inet multicast
D. Use the set rib-group command to copy the multicast routes into inet.1
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Which LSA is the Type 10?
A. Router LSA
B. Opaque LSA
C. AS attributes LSA
D. ASBR summary LSA
E. Network summary LSA
Answer: B

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JN0-560 exam dumps

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Exam Code: JN0-560
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate.....)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the GUI? (Choose three)
A. ping
B. snoop
C. debug
D. tcpdump
E. trace route
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 Host Checker is primarily used to:
A. Remove unwanted files from the remote machine
B. Determine the surety posture of the remote machine
C. Distribute software posture to the remote machine
D. Capture sign in credentials of the remote user
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following elements can you NO modify on the sign-in page?
A. prompts
B. error messages
C. button text
D. screen size
E. logo
Answer: D

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NO.5 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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NO.6 JSAM starts, but the client cannot connect:
Which two questions should you consider when troubleshooting this problem?
(Choose Two)
A. is ActiveX allowed in browser?
B. Is the user logged in under the correct account?
C. Does the user have a personal firewall blocking 127x.x.x?
D. Has the host file been rewritten to redirect the traffic to a loopback address?
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 What are two functions performed by the inermediation engine?
A. Authorization :This function insures users trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then forwards requests o the inside server using those credentials.
B. Authentication: This function insures user trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C. Transformer: This function can modify the "chunked" data stream before it passes he
data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and
scripts to refer to "virtual"URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliances.
D. Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by
the transformers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 What are two possible reasons for WSAM not starting on the client? (choose two)
A. Java is disabled in the browser
B. Active x is disabled in the browser
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. There is a possible conflict with other LSP-based applications like IPSec, VPN clients
or Spyware.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 What is a drawback of using Application Layer Access?
A. limited auding
B. OS/JVM compatibility issues
C. Only TCP/IP level authorization
D. Limited resource access o enterprise web applications and resource
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.13 Cache Cleaner is primarily used to:
A. Determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
B. Remove web content downloaded during the remote access session
C. Remove web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. Prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 What is the purpose of the sing-in policy?
A. The Sign-in Policy controls whether or not a user can sign-in based on role
membership
B. The sign-in policy defines the URLs that users and administrator can use to access the
IVE.
C. The Sign-in Policy controls which options are available on the login screen based on
the users permissions.
D. The Sign-in Policy controls who can actually get to the login page, based on IP
address, certificate information,Host checker and other criteria
Answer: B

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NO.16 You install Central Manager and now want to filter your logs to extract
information about system events.
What is the easiest way to create simple log filters?
A. You type the query in by hand in the Edit query field, then select Update.
B. You create the query in the query field using the filer variables Dictionary.
C. In the log display, you click on a field containing the value you want to use as a filter.
D. The Central Manager does not allow for customized logging. You must by a special
license to perform log filtering.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.18 A user is not getting access to needed resources. They are currently unavailable to
work with directly.
What information do you need to use the simulation tool to work on their problem?
(choose three)
A. remain
B. resource
C. username
D. role mapping
E. user password
F. admin override password
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 What are two strength of SSL? (Choose two)
A. SSL is familiar o most users.
B. SSL does no need to be installed or configured.
C. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather
than the applicationlayer.
D. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure
than that of an IPSec clien.
Answer: A,B

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